From: Andrew Jarrette
Message: 50223
Date: 2007-10-08

The Oxford Introduction to Indo-European states that Germanic *hailaz (>Engl. <whole>) derives from the same root as Greek (Hesychius' gloss) <koi^lu> "good".  Earlier etymologies usually postulate *kailos.  My question is, why does the Greek word have the circumflex accent?  Does it suggest that the Greek form goes back to an earlier *kowilu or *kosilu?  (If so, then the Greek word is not cognate, and the other etymology is probably better.  I take it that the diphthong *ai is postulated because of Welsh <coel> "omen", in which *ai regularly becomes <oe>, correct?.  I've forgotten, what does *oi become in Welsh? <u>?)