> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Andrew Jarrette
> <anjarrette@...> wrote:
> >
> > Does anyone know the reason why Sanskrit has <h->
> in <hrd> "heart"
> > Similarly, why does <hanu> "jaw" have <h->
--- etherman23 <
etherman23@...> wrote:
> The second can easily be explained by reconstructing
> the root as
> *g^h1enu. In all languages except IIr. the laryngeal
> is lost. In IIr.
> it's lost as well, but with aspiration of the
> preceding stop.
There are words with *gYnu-, etc., such as Greek gnúx 'on the knee'
and *kYniu- > knee. If there were a xY (h1) in the word why wouldn't
it appear as e or a?
The changes you propose do not fit those seen at morpheme
boundaries, with many more changes than >0 in most and >H in Ind-Ir,
such as for *xWosdo+s 'branch':
*ge+xWosdo+s > *gGWosdo+s 'straight branch (and similarly-shaped objects)'
*gGWosdo+ > *gwozdo+ > OCS gvozdI 'nail'
*gGWosdo+ > *gWozdo+ > OIr bot 'penis'
*gGWosdo+ > *gWHozdo+ >> *gWHozdo+bhern.o+ > *bhozdobhorn.o+ >
*bastbarn.a+ > *bastarna+ 'bastard < child from sex (not marriage)'
*me+xWosdo+s > *m,xWosdo+s 'big branch (and similar objects, like
clubs and poles)'
*m,xWosdo+ > *mGWosdo+ > *mGasdo+ > E mast
*m,xWosdo+ > *mGWosdo+ > *mGasdo+ > L ma:lus
etc.