Re: [tied] Pferd

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Jens Elmegård Rasmussen <elme@...> wrote:

>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@> wrote:
>
> [Jens:]
> > > Actually, it's Celtic *wer-reidos, not *wo-; you ride on top of a
> > > horse, not underneath it :-)
>
> [Piotr:]
> > Why not 'a secondary mount', like Pol. podjezdek 'a horse to be
> ridden
> > by servants or messengers'?

Because Pan was in a carriage? That would make "secondary horse" and
"horse for riding" equivalent, and provide a reason why Du. paard,
Germ. Pferd became *the* word for that animal.

> I hadn't thought of that. I see now that Stefan Schumacher, Die
> Keltischen Primärverben (Innsbruck 2004), 535, posits a for-
> rét* 'reiten' (attested 1pl forriadam),

OI?

> but cites its preverb as *wo-.

Ernout-Meillet under uere:dus has parauere:dus, but OHG pferifri:d,
pferi:d, and "irl. falafraidh semble provenir du français"(?). in
other words, -f- in that position.

(Is their next entry relevant:
"uerennes: a uehere, i.e. exportare nominatae, Isid., Or.20,14,13.
Inexpliqué."?)

Para- is not necessarily Graeco-Latin, cf 'Belgian' Par-isii "those on
the Oise"


Torsten