>This explains the typological oddity of the "primary" endings being
>apparently marked with respect to the "secondary" ones.
Doesn't this also relate to the fact that present stem formations are
normally marked, whereas aorists aren't?
I mean the present forms are formed from a root by the addition of markers
such as CiC- or -eyo- or nasal infix, etc.
Doesn't that also indicate that what became the aorist was the unmarked
form?