Re: [tied] Origins of Indo-European, and naturalness of laryngeals

From: Richard Wordingham
Message: 46473
Date: 2006-10-25

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Patrick Ryan" <proto-language@...>
wrote:

> While I do not doubt that any consonant in any language has some
small allophonic effect on any vowel with which it comes into contact,
as Brian concisely stated, the question here is whether an allophone
of an existing phoneme can achieve new phonemic status; and maintain
that status even after the elimination of the conditioning consonant.

I trust you don't mean what you are saying - that would cast doubt on
the basis of Germanic umlaut.

I hope you are merely saying that you don't believe a consonant could
condition a split of a vowel phoneme into two vowels and then vanish,
not that there is convincing evidence that laryngeals created new
vowel qualities - /a/ and /o/ seem to have origins besides laryngeal
colouring of /e/.

The best example I can think of is the split of French /a/ into a back
vowel /A/ before /s/ (e.g. _pas_ /pA/, _pâte_ /pAt/) and a front vowel
otherwise (e.g. _chat_ /Sa/, _patte_ /pat/).

Richard.