Re: [tied] Re: kentum/satem: why Lithuanian kg before e/i
From: Sean Whalen
--- "Joao S. Lopes" <josimo70@...
> But theses changes are frequently symmetric. English
> palatalized g-, and also k-. I know this is not a
> obrigatory law, but the assymmetry seems odd.
> It leads me to a question: is Satem a monophyletic
> group, or an independent evolution?
> And I'd add to this group Greek, that is kentum, but
> palatalized labio-velars: kWo->po, but
Not every Greek dialect palatalized them there.
Some do show asymmetry (kWH / gW vs kW; e vs i).
I'd say the palatalization occurred in one area but
that the boundaries of any change don't necessarily
match those of the dialects. For example, some Greek
dialects share features with Latin.
Lithuanian did palatalize K(W) to K^ before i/e but
just didn't turn K^ into fricatives unlike most other
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