From: Joao S. Lopes
On 2006-08-08 17:04, Joao S. Lopes wrote:
> Why labio-velars before palatal vowels in Baltic didnt develop into
> palatals, like other satem languages (cf. Slavic k/c^, Indo-Iranian
> k/c^, but Baltic k)?
Why did PGmc. *Ge-, *ke- become Eng. ye-, che- but German ge-, ke-? Why
do we have French cent /sa~/ but Sardinian kentu? Perhaps because the
palatalisation of velars before front vowels, though in general very
likely, is not inevitable.
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