Re: [tied] Hamp on Alb. <peshk>

Dear Mate,

Can't you found strange that from such amount of other etymologies you pick up exactly "fish" and you ironically try to show that Alb. <peshkatar> 'fisherman' is almost, to your view, identical with <pescatore>. For Italian <pesce> you know that it cannot be the source, for sc- followed by front vowels is reading like English /sh/.

If I am wrong, I am sorry, but something is rotten in the kingdom of Denmark.

Regards,

Konushevci

On 7/6/06, Mate Kapovic <mkapovic@...> wrote:

----- Original Message -----
From: "Piotr Gasiorowski" < gpiotr@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Wednesday, July 05, 2006 11:10 PM
Subject: Re: [tied] Hamp on Alb. <peshk>

>> The reaction of the representative of the Slavic school, V. Orel
>> (AED 316-317; see also M. Kapovich and Gasiorowski in this forum)
>> is: (…) HAMP KZ LXXVII 256-257 (peshk as an indigenous form!). To my
>> view, all this have to do more with politics than with linguistics,
>> for, according to Slavic linguists, Albanian, being non-descendent
>> of Illyrian and coming later in this area, borrowed word for "fish"
>> from Latin, having not even one historical evidence, and, we may
>> see, having not even one argument that Alb. <peshk> could be a
>> borrowed word from Latin.

I fail to see a connection of the supposed "Slavic school" and my innocent
initial remark about Albanian word for "fish". Even if I were some sort of
pan-Slavist something (which I am not), why would I care if the Albanians
took their word for fish from the Romans or if they preserved it from PIE?
What does it have to do with Slavic?

Mate

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