Re: [tied] Latin tardus

--- Andrew Jarrette <anjarrette@...> wrote:

> If /a/ in <tardus> is not derived
> from an original *e, then what is the origin of /a/
> in this Latin word?

There are cases of *wr. > ar before w or u at a
certain stage:

arduus "steep"
u:rdhva- "upright" Skt

arvum "arable land"
urvara:- "field" Skt

If tardus is from PIE, a very speculative derivation
could be

turdu-
twr.du-
tardu-

Though there are problems with this, analogy could
account for them.

> This dictionary similarly
> derives Latin <mari:tus> "probably" from the IE
> base *meri "young wife", akin to *meryo-, "young
> man", in Sanskrit <marya-> "man, young man, suitor".
> If this is the basis of <mari:tus>, how would Latin
> /a/ derive from IE *e? I believe there are a
> significant number of other Latin words in this
> dictionary with /a/ held to be from *e. Under what
> conditions would IE *e become /a/ in Latin?

I believe there are some cases where nasalized *e
becomes a, but this isn't certain.

> Could this supposed change of *e > /a/
> account for the /a/ in <maneo>?

Maybe.

> (And could this
> account for cases of /a/ in Celtic as well (ref. my
> earlier question on the origin of Celtic /a/)?)

There are many changes that create a; which ones are
you thinking of?



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