Re: [tied] Latin barba in disaccord with Grimm's Law?

> First of all, *bHardHah2 is known from Italic, Germanic and
> Balto-Slavic, and this kind of distribution hardly guarantees its PIE
> status. It may be a relatively late areal term (the same is true of
> *bHar(e)s- 'barley', Lat. farr-, which may be related to the 'beard'
> word). But there are quite a few better witnesses, and the evidence

in

> favour of PIE *a has been discussed here before -- search the

archives.

> Of course if the comparative evidence forces us to reconstruct a
> protoform with *a, this overrules all theoretical expectations.
>

Since I prefer keeping the *p/bh-r/l- "other side; life; crop; etc etc"
words together, I'd propose that it's originally *bhardh- "stubble"
-> "beard"

Torsten