Re: [tied] trzymac'

From: Mate Kapović
Message: 44752
Date: 2006-05-29

On Ned, svibanj 28, 2006 10:54 am, Sergejus Tarasovas reče:

> Actually, I came up with the question after I had read a passage in
> Stang's Slavonic Accentuation (p. 42), where he -- speaking of b-
> verbs ("where the present has a long vowel as a result of neo-
> acute") -- adduces some Slovincian verbs (from Lorentz's grammar) to
> illustrate a thesis that "in the syllable immediately preceding a
> stressed inner syllable we find shortening".

That is correct. *V:-'V-V goes shortens regularly to V-'V-V, which is seen
in Slovincian infinitives.

>Indeed, in that case
> Slovincian <tr^îma,> 'I hold' (if <*tri:mň, with -ajo, dialectally
> contracted already in Common Slavic?) vs. <tr^ĺ~mac> 'to hold' (if <
> *trima"ti) would demonstrate shortening before a stressed inner
> syllable (*trima"ti) and non-shortening before a stressed final
> syllable (*tri:mň,).

Actually, the shortening is in the infinitive, but in present tense, the
length is neo-acute in origin. The 1st person final accent would yield
exactly the same result in Slovincian since the accent is retracted (also
a long vowel).

> Stang didn't know Dybo's Law and considered the place of ictus in b-
> verbs original, while from contemporary point of view one would
> probably expect non-shortening in both cases (*trí:mati > *tri:ma"ti
> in the same way as *trí:mo, > *tri:mň,),

Nope. It is clear that there is a shortening in the first case. I have
written about it at length. If you are interested, I can send you my
article.

Mate