From: Andrew Jarrette
Message: 44467
Date: 2006-05-03
I have a question about the scope of i-umlaut in Old
English. I'm afraid it is very basic, but the historical
grammars aren't very clear on the subject. (Just as they are
generally not concerned, it seems, with the relative
chronology of sound changes.)---------Check out the Old English Grammar by Campbell (I forget his initials, maybe A.C.). I believe it has a comprehensive discussion of umlaut with a full relative chronology.