Re: [tied] Re: PIE genitive plural *-o:m, a possible analysis

On 2006-04-26 15:11, tgpedersen wrote:

> Nom. *h1den-s > *eden-s
> Obl. *h1dont- > *edont-

I don't understand where the oblique form comes from.

>
> Nom. *edon-s
> Obl. *edont-
>
> which is hypercorrected back by some to
>
> Nom. *eden-s
> Obl. *edent-
>
> and "hyper-regularised" back again (by the first party?) as
>
> Nom. *odon-s
> Acc. *odont-

In what way is this superior to reconstructing the pres.p. *h1éd-ont-,
substantivised (with contrastive accent) as *h1d-ónt-s (gen. *h1dn.t-ós,
which accounts for the vocalism of Lat. dent- without introducing an
otherwise unattested e-grade)? The regularly expected Gk. outcome would
of course have been <edous> (and cf. Aeol. edontes 'teeth'), but the
assimilatory colouring of *&1 or *e by the vowel of the next syllable is
not unknown in Greek.

Piotr