Re: [tied] Greek labiovelars
--- In firstname.lastname@example.org
, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:
> They're not my ideas. I was told it's the standard
> interpretation of the facts among Arabists.
This is getting dangerously off-topic, but do you know if Coptic has
(had) any palatal stops or postalveolar affricates? Perhaps the
reason Egyptian Arabic /g^/ = [g] is because the pre-conquest
Egyptians had no equivalent in their native language (Coptic).