Re: [tied] Greek labiovelars

From: tgpedersen
Message: 43952
Date: 2006-03-22

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:
>
> On Tue, 21 Mar 2006 16:16:07 -0500, andrew jarrette
> <jarretteandrew@...> wrote:
>
> >This is very interesting, as it provides an example of the
regular change of an
> >originally palatal plosive to a velar plosive -- which is what
classical IE
> >theory asks us to believe happened in the case of western IE
languages like
> >Greek, Latin, Germanic, and Celtic. So perhaps the palatal
plosives were
> >indeed original, and not a special development of original velars
in eastern
> >IE languages (excluding Tocharian)? Egyptian seems to prove that
it is possible,
> >if Miguel Vidal's ideas are the correct interpretation.
>
> They're not my ideas. I was told it's the standard
> interpretation of the facts among Arabists.
>


And it's not explainable as paradigm regularisation (eg. dz^/g)?


Torsten