george knysh schrieb:
>
> ****GK: I see no reason to hold that "pric^ina" took
> this route. It was already there.****
oh.... so, we have two languages which got each an word which looks
very appropiate (if not identical) but each language developed by
itself that word? I assume you don't. And I assume you have nothing
to say against Latin "per que" > "price". Incidentaly the variant
which Marius sustains, IE "prek^" will yeld phoneticaly the same
result( not the nill grade, thi one should yeld *prâce, not price).
So, why should I guess this is a loan from Slavic? Slavic has no
price at all.
Alex