Re: New genetic studies regarding the Indo-Aryans

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "mkelkar2003" <smykelkar@...> wrote:

>
> http://vetinari.sitesled.com/india.pdf
>
> "Our reappraisal indicates that pre Holocene and Holocene-era-not
> Indo-European expansion have shaped the distinctive South Asian Y
> chromosome landscape (Sengupta et. Al. 2005, Abstract)."
> "In other words, there is no evidence whatsoever to conclude that
> Central Asia has been necessarily the recent donor and NOT THE
> RECEPTOR of the R1a lineages (Sengupta et. Al, 2005, p. 17, emphasis
> added)."

Broken link.

> http://www.pnas.org/cgi/content/abstract/0507714103v1
>
> (Thanks to P. Manansala for the complete article).
>
> "The sharing of some Y-chromosomal haplogroups between Indian and
> Central Asian populations is most parsimoniously explained by a
> deep, common ancestry between the two regions, with diffusion of
> some Indian-specific lineages northward (abstract)."

How is that explanation most parsimonious? You offer no evidence in
support of that thesis.

> "Rather the high incidence of R1* and R1a throughout Central Asian
> and East European populations (without R2 and R* in most cases) is
> more parsimoniously explained by gene flow in the opposite direction
> possibly with an early founder effect in South or West Asia (p. 4)."

Again, more evidence is needed.

> "A pre-Neolithic chronology for the origins of Indian Y chromosomes
> is also supported by the lack of a clear delineation between DR
> (Dravidian) and IE (Indo-European) speakers (p. 5, parenthesis
> added)."

This is likely due to relatively small numbers of Indo-European
migrants into India. In other words, the language spread a lot more
than the genes. The same argument can be made for Britons, who
overwhelmingly lack the "Indo-European" M17 gene yet speak an IE
language (English).

- Rob