Such o-presents have been analysed as
> a whole separate PIE conjugation (with *-h2a-type endings and *o/*e
> ablaut) by Jasanoff (2003).
From what I've seen, outside of Anatolian, the hi-conjugation occurs
in the present only in the Germanic preterito-presentic verbs,
including the modal verbs. But isn't Latin o:di: "I hate" (and other
Latin verbs of perfect inflection and present sense) an example too?
It's difficult to imagine it as resultative.
Torsten