Re: [tied] Must sound change be linguistically motivated?

From: george knysh
Message: 42679
Date: 2006-01-01

--- alexandru_mg3 <alexandru_mg3@...> wrote:

>
> Knowing from history, the Scythian invasions in
> Dacia and Balkans,
> (first one around sec VII-V BCE , last one sec III-V
> CE) I think that
> this transformation was trigerred when the local
> population has tried
> to adapt his own pronunciation to the Scythian
> ocuppiers that
> pronounced an r for any l.

*****GK: (1)There were no Scythian invasions of "Dacia
and Balkans" in the 3rd-5th c. AD. As Pliny the Elder
remarked ca. 77 AD "nomen Scytharum usquequaque
transiit in Sarmatas et Germanos"...Of the classical
Scythian state, the remaining small organization in
the Crimea was conquered by the Bosporans at the very
end of the 2nd c. AD.
(2) Leaving the "Scythian" Goths aside, and dismissing
the Eastern Roman notion of Attila's Huns as "Royal
Scythians", we have evidence of "Sarmats" (Iazygi and
Roxolani) and Alans in the area. We have practically
no knowledge of the "Sarmat" dialect(s), but Alanic
certainly did not "pronounce an r for any l". "Alans"
for "Aryans"...*****







__________________________________
Yahoo! for Good - Make a difference this year.
http://brand.yahoo.com/cybergivingweek2005/