Re: [tied] Re: Proto Vedic Continuity Theory of Bharatiya (Indian)

--- Richard Wordingham
<richard.wordingham@...> wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Francesco
> Brighenti" <frabrig@...>
> wrote:
> > Of course not. But, really, the invasionist
> historical paradigm was
> > demised long ago by most of serious researchers.
> Modern Indologists
> > and Indo-Iranian historical linguists tend to
> speak of transfers of
> > ideologies, subsistence systems, language, and
> spiritual culture
> > from one group to the other as often as movements
> of people. Such
> > processes do not necessarily involve large-scale
> migrations,
> > although actual physical movement (starting with,
> e.g., transhumance
> > tricklings in involving the transference of
> pastoralist innovations
> > from one population to another, and the emergence
> of 'khanate'-like
> > territorial domains) and intermarriage are not
> excluded. Various
> > types of military interaction, such as cattle
> raids, actual war-like
> > clashes, battles and even the incidental invasion
> of smaller or
> > larger bands, groups or tribes may or may not be
> part of the
> > picture.
>
> Can you give a better documented example of such
> processes causing
> language replacement? The nearest example I can
> think of is the
> replacement of Russian by French among the Russian
> upper class in the
> 18th century, but could that have resulted in Russia
> becoming
> French-speaking? Possibly Brussels's speaking
> French rather than
> Walloons or Flemish is a better example.
>
> Richard.

*****GK: There are so many well-attested instances of
"invasions" (large, small, middling etc..) in human
history that the national-autochtonist position of the
Kalyamaran-Kelkar school(s) seems a priori
improbable, to say the least. I confess that I have
not read much of the literature (immense no doubt and
getting "immenser" (:=)) of the autochtonist
school(s), but the examples offered here by K/K are
not particularly encouraging. The helpful suggestions
made above by Francesco need to be concretized (I
quite agree with Richard on this). The two
possibilities Richard noted do not seem convincing as
an explanation of the presence of Indo-Aryan in India
without further assumptions that are more complex than
the theory (or theories) they are intended to replace.
Richard himself is not too keen on the Russian
example, and I don't really see how the Brussels
scenario is much better. In both cases BTW we have the
presence of a most potent and extremely
well-documented "French base" to be imitated. Where is
the "base" of the Indo-Aryan languages outside of
India?*****

>
>
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>

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