Re: [tied] Re: Origin of OE pres. ind. 1st person ending

On Mon, 31 Oct 2005 12:07:13 +0000, dariusz_piwowarczyk
<dariusz_piwowarczyk@...> wrote:

>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:
>
>> >
>> >In the earliest West-Saxon manuscripts, this ending appears
>> >as -æ rather than -e. I have seen various explanations for it.
>> >For example, -e < -æ < -am is a regular word-final development
>> >in Old English.
>>
>> Where -am ultimately derives from PIE -o:m.
>>
>> >The use of such a secondary -m ending in the
>> >present indicative 1st person is common in other IE languages
>> >as well, such as Old Irish, Persian, etc.
>>
>> Also Slavic.
>
>Thank you for your answers. Is it really so in Slavic? In 'Symbolae
>Linguisticae in honorem Georgii Kurylowicz' (Krakow, 1965) Warren
>Cowgill writes (article titled 'The OE present indicative ending -e')
>that "(...) Vaillant has now convincingly derived the Slavic ending
>from *-o:-mi (...),

*-o:mi gives Slavic -amI, as in imamI.

>So, coming back to the OE ending, you're not of the opinion that it
>could originate from the subjunctive (IE optative)?

Not if the earlier form is *-a > -æ. The optative -e comes
from *-ai > WGmc. *-e, not *-a.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...