Re: Origin of OE pres. ind. 1st person ending

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "dariusz_piwowarczyk"
<dariusz_piwowarczyk@...> wrote:

>
> I would like to ask what is the present opinion as to the origin of
> the Old English 1st person present indicative ending in West Saxon,
> i.e. the -e ending. Northern Old English dialects have -u which is a
> continuation of the PIE long -o. So, is the West Saxon form from the
> optative?
>
> Looking forward for any suggestions.
>
> Dariusz
>

In the earliest West-Saxon manuscripts, this ending appears
as -æ rather than -e. I have seen various explanations for it.
For example, -e < -æ < -am is a regular word-final development
in Old English. The use of such a secondary -m ending in the
present indicative 1st person is common in other IE languages
as well, such as Old Irish, Persian, etc.

---Greg