Re: [tied] Anatolian

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Grzegorz Jagodzinski"
<grzegorj2000@...> wrote:

> These are observations, not hypotheses.
>
> And now an answer: do you know ONE example that would contradict

this model

> of one mother language with no clear dialectal differences "in the
> beginning"?
>
> > In reality, dialects in any language modern or ancient
> > are nothing more than "bundles of idiosyncratic
> > features" in a particular region. If you think about
> > dialects in this way,
>
> I cannot think this way for the reason above. I see _similarities_

within

> language groups (= subfamilies, like Romance, Slavic or Indic) and
> differences between these groups. So, I imagine that what we call the
> Proto-Indo-Europaean was ONE language once, with some closely related
> dialects (or even so uniform as Latin must have been once), used

within a

> small area.
>
> > then we can understand both how
> > dialects can each have their own boundaries while
> > also recognizing that *some* of the features of one
> > dialect may overlap into other neighbouring dialect
> > regions (or even other language groups) by way of
> > simple areal influence.
>
> The model according to which that one, relatively uniform PIE

language split

> into many many dialects, equally related with each other, and which

finally

> formed nothing but historic attested languages, is incorrect. icts

your fluid model.

>
> Grzegorz J.

These views are in line with those of Antoine Meillet. There was never
a PIE language and hence no sense looking for a "PIE homeland."

M. Kelkar

>
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