Re: The pronunciation of post-velars (was Re: [tied] *kW- "?")

----- Original Message -----
From: "glen gordon" <glengordon01@...>
To: <cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Friday, September 23, 2005 4:30 PM
Subject: Re: The pronunciation of post-velars (was Re: [tied] *kW- "?")


>
> Torsten:
> > I still haven't heard your answer to whether *k and
> > *h2 back pre-PIE *e to PIE *a, or they keep pre-PIE
> > *a from being fronted to PIE *e.
>
> For me, "pre-IE" is segmented into Old IE (post-
> IndoTyrrhenian), Mid IE (post-QAR) and Late IE
> (post-Syncope).
>
> In MIE, there was no phoneme *q distinct from *k
> because they were only allophones. So /k./ never
> ever existed next to *e, only accented *a.
>
> After Syncope in Late IE, *q would have become
> phonemicized and only then would *q or *h2 start
> lowering *e to /A/.
>
>
> = gLeN

***
Patrick:

Perhaps you will eventually finely enough subdivide the period so that you
can give us an hourly summary of phonological "facts".

***