--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Patrick Ryan" <proto-language@...>
wrote:
> I am not sure I understand why Greek _thugáte:r_ would argue for PIE
> *dhúgh2ter-.
>
> I would think it would argue for PIE *dhug(h)-Há(H)tR-; I believe
the Greek
> form correctly reflects the original PIE position of the stress-accent.
a) The second vowel is reduced / zero-grade (as readily demonstrated
by the Greek-Sanskrit correspondence a~i), and therefore unlikely to
have borne the accent, though that is not beyond the bounds of
possibility. (Or is it impossible for a laryngeal?)
b) In Greek, all morae between the final and the accented mora must be
in the same syllable. If other rules would put it in such a banned
position, it moves towards the end of the word until its position is
complies with the rule. Thus PIE *dHúgh2te:r would yield Greek
_thugáte:r_. As another application of the rule, this stress is the
nearest the nominative singular can come to having the stress of the
vocative, _thúgater_.
Richard.