Re: Short and long vowels

From: etherman23
Message: 39307
Date: 2005-07-18

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Patrick Ryan" <proto-language@...>
wrote:
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: etherman23<mailto:etherman23@...>
> To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com<mailto:cybalist@yahoogroups.com>
> Sent: Sunday, July 17, 2005 3:52 PM
> Subject: [tied] Re: Short and long vowels
>
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com<mailto:cybalist@yahoogroups.com>,
"Patrick Ryan" <proto-language@...<mailto:proto-language@...>...>
> wrote:
> > Zero-grade with the removal of one vowel from *dhe:- /dHee/, *sta:-
> > /staa/, and *do:- /doo/ leaves *dhe-, *sta-, and *do-.
>
> Now let's proceed to the next step. Why do non-Greek, non-IIr.
> languages have a in all of these forms?
>
> ***
> Patrick:
>
> I would be glad to try to address your question but how about some
specific and examples of the specifics?
>
>
> ***

Well the specific examples would be the reflexes of dhe:, sta:, and
do:. Greek gives us e, a, and o in the zero grade, IIr. i, and all the
other languages a.

It seems that you want to explain this by a merger of e, a ,and o to a
(except in Greek). But then how do you explain those cases where Greek
e and o don't correspond to a in other languages (except IIr where it
corresponds to a(:) instead of i)?