Re: [tied] 'coke' in Polish?

tgpedersen wrote:

> How is eg. 'coke' (as in 'cocaine'; assuming it's a recent loanword in
> Polish) inflected in all cases in Polish? Does the -k- alternate (eg.
> with -c- ?) where it would in native Polish words?

Yes, the dative/locative is <koce> and can't be anything else. This
"morphological palatalisation" applies only across a morphological
boundary, i.e. in a derived environment, not morpheme-internally. In
other words, the sequences /ke/ and /ki/ are fully acceptable in Polish
and the k ~ c alternation is a morphophonological _rule_, not a
phonological _process_. Loans like <keson>, <kepi> or <kibutz> can't be
affected.

Piotr