[tied] Re: passive, ingressive origins

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "P&G" <G&P@...> wrote:

> You've lost me Torsten.
> You say:
> "Brugmann's law must have taken effect _after_ that point in time
> where the causative suffix ... gave up its status
> as an indepebndent word and became part of the verb stem."
>
> This can only be logically necessary if Brugmann's law is

prevented before

> that time.
> I have shown you that Brugmann's law is not prevented before that

time.

>

Brugman's law says that in Sanskrit -o- was lengthened in open
syllable before it became -a:-. What exactly do you mean when you
refer to Brugmann's law in Latin?


Torsten