Re: [tied] Greek+Slavic

> For example we see both Anthropos
> (probably pelasgic,preGreek) and Aner-andros meaning "MAN". But Aner
> (IE) was used to denote the richer and Indo-European master, while
> Anthropos was used by the Indo Europeans to denote a lower-class
> Pelasgic slave or farmer.

But Greek ánthro:pos (Myc. a-to-ro-qo) might have an IE etymology. If from
*h2ent-rh3kWos it could be a compound with IE *h2ent- > Hittite hanza
"face" (cf. Lat. perso:na < Etr. < Greek próso:pon for the semantics).

>Their name comes from
> the word 'Sclavi' (slaves) because they never created their own
> important state before the 9th c. BC. This is probably the best
> etymology i know, because in Byzantine sources they are also
> called "sKlaveni" and "sKlavi".

Well it's the other way round - "slaves" is from "Slavs" because "Slavs"
were used as "slaves".

>There is another etymology:from
> Slava=glory in slavic. But if that's true why did the byzantines
> included a K in their name or just a 'th' (sklaveni or sthlaveni
> sometimes).

Uhm, maybe coz they couldn't pronounce initial #sl-? Huh?

Mate