> Being the feminine a derivation from a common gender indicates that the
> male-centrism is much deeper and more compreensive to be considered only
> looking in independent (microlinguistics) linguististics.
How so? Derivation of the fem. is male-centrism and the lack of it is also
male-centrism (at least according to the modern feminist activists)?
Much of the problems are due to the unfortunate Greek & Latin grammar
tradition name "masculine" (instead of for instance "common" as Pavel
said). If it were not named "masc." but "comm.", I guess there would be
far less calls for "machismo" and other nonsense like that. Anybody who
knows anything about IE linguistics knows that this has nothing to do with
man supremacy, patriarchal culture etc.
Mate