Re: [tied] But where does *-mi come from?

>"A curious feature of the Vedic language is that the noun which is
>logically the object of the infinitive is placed in the same case as
>the infinitive, so that "to see the sun" is expressed 'dr.s´áye
>sú:rya:ya', lit. "for seeing, for the sun";

Similar (not parallel) constructions occur in Latin and Greek. Latin
especially avoids the abstract in favour of the concrete, so when a verbal
adjective of any kind would be in an oblique case with a noun object, the
noun takes that case, and the verbal adjective remains merely an adjective
agreeing with it. But what was your point?

>Infinitives were once verbal nouns.

Yes. What is your point?

>Latin facio: can be construed with an infinitive. However, ...'facio' is
>construed with a dependent
>clause without any conjunction,

Yes, that's not uncommon. The verb after facio will be subjunctive.
What's the point?

Peter