Re: [tied] But where does *-mi come from?

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "P&G" <G&P@...> wrote:

> >Latin has a "double ablative", a dependent construction where a
> >subject and a past pasticiple (*-tó-) of its verb are given ablative
> >endings.
>
> I presume you mean the ablative absolute. The origin of this is

unclear,

> but it is clearly a true ablative, as it is found in Greek as a

genitive

> absolute. It is also likely to have begun with noun + noun

(e.g. "Caesare

> duce"), The nominal origin is also seen in the -e ending of the

present

> participle (rather than the adjective -i ending). The subject and

past

> participle (*tó-) construction therefore may not be inherited.
>

I think I recognise in that line of argument an attempt to distinguish
between two options: was it noun + noun at first or not? Actually,
since I'm trying to construe the ablative absolute as a construction
with a verbal noun + noun phrase, the fact that the present participle
in it is inflected as a noun rather strengthens my case that disproves
it.


Torsten