Re: [tied] Root of "marten," "sable"

I know Germanic is surely centum, k>h, no palatalization. But I just sugesting a different view: if there was first a palatalization, and later a shift s^>x (like Old Spanish>Modern Spanish).

Joao SL

"C. Darwin Goranson" <cdog_squirrel@...> escreveu:

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Joao S. Lopes" <josimo70@...> wrote: > Or Perhaps Germanic was originally Satem? k^>s^>X>h ? --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Joao S. Lopes" <josimo70@...> wrote: > stoat < *stait- <*stoid, akin to Greek ktis, iktis "weasel"? *k(s)tid- ? I'm going to hope your responses are meant in seriousness. hundred/hundert > hund > khund > k@... (@ = schwa). It's a centum one. The PIE is kh'mtom, if my memory serves me right. As for the stoat hypothesis, it seems a bit of a stretch. If *stoid were the root, mightn't "stolid" arise from it? THAT's possible, but to tie it to Greek seems unlikely, considering the differences between the two in the Indo-European continuum (that is, they share comparitively few words save for general ones arising from PIE). Hwever, if other languages uphold *kstid-, it could be so.

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