Re: The "Mother" Problem

From: Richard Wordingham
Message: 36103
Date: 2005-02-02

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Rob" <magwich78@...> wrote:
> I thought so. However, how can that be reconciled with
> the 'collective' (later passive) deverbal meaning in *-tó? If
there
> was an active participle in *-t, how could an adjectival form
based
> on it acquire passivity?

Via neutrality? In isolating languages, the same syntax can be used
for active and passive 'participles', e.g. in Thai _phuu phat_, word
for word 'person fry', could be 'fryer' or 'long pig'. Doesn't the
PIE middle suggests that such neutrality as to active / passive
would be far from unusual? English can also be neutral as to voice,
as in 'hounds to hunt' versus 'foxes to hunt'.

Richard.