Re: [tied] Re: Walachians are placed far North the Danube in Nestor

willemvermeer wrote:

>
>
> To give an example of an issue that should be addressed: what
> adherent of the transdanubian continuity thesis has ever provided a
> plausible motivation for the presence of Arumanian in northern Greece
> and southern Albania? On the basis of the Ohrid thesis it is easy:
> Arumanian has remained closest to what one might call the Urheimat,
> whereas more northerly dialects have moved out to take advantage of
> opportunities offered elsewhere, e.g. the lush soils of Muntenia.
>
>
> Things are getting out of hand,
>
>
> Cheers!!
>
>
> Willem

I am afraid you ommited something. The linguistic data means the Aromanains
splited from DacoRomanians somewhere in the VI _or_ X century. My personal
opinion is that they have split in the X century. My arguments here are of
historical nature and not of linguistical nature because the fonetic changes
between VI-X century are not traceable.
Arguments:
-until X century is not Vlah mentioned by Byzantins
-in the X century are comming the Hungarians who drove out the Vlachs which
have been in Panonia.


Alex