Re: [tied] Balto-Slavic accentology

From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 35626
Date: 2004-12-24

On Thu, 23 Dec 2004 16:24:52 +0000, elmeras2000
<jer@...> wrote:

>--- In, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:
>> I had wanted to ask you about your thoughts on the origin of
>> the ê/i type in Balto-Slavic. Jasanoff says that your
>> thoughts are (independently) similar to his: barytonic 3pl.
>> -n.ti > -inti and then spread of -i- (Slav. i:-, after
>> iterative/causatives) to the other persons. Jasanoff's
>> brief account doesn't really convince me, maybe you can
>> explain it better.
>I have considered the Slavic situation the result of a reduction of
>the number of types. There were quite many types that formed a 1sg
>in -y-o:, viz.:
>*-h1-yo: (stative), *-éyo: (caus.-iter.), *-eyó: (denom. from o-
>stems), *-i-yó: (denom. from i-stems).

And plain *-yó:.

>They had different froms in
>the other persons, *-h1-ye-, *-éye-, *-eyé-, *-i-ye-, the three last
>of which developed into Slav. -i-, which was subsequently
>generalized to serve also with the stative e:-verbs.

Yes, but what I don't get is how a supposed *-h1-yé- didn't
merge with *-yé- (or, alternatively, why *yé-verbs didn't
acquire an i-present).

Miguel Carrasquer Vidal