Re: [tied] Re: More Slavic accentology

On Wed, 15 Dec 2004 11:30:34 +0000, willemvermeer
<wrvermeer@...> wrote:

>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:
>
>> ... My problems with Kortlandt's explanation
>> have been stated by Kortlandt himself: the proposed rule
>> does not explain pádla, ê'dla, sê'dla, possibly strígla and
>> some others. The explanation through some kind of
>> analogical extension of Hirt's law raises more questions
>> than it answers (why did it only work in the l-ptc. and not
>> for instance in the oxytonic o-stem neuters with acute root
>> such as the ones in -dló [dêdló, peNdló, stadló etc.]?).
>
>
>This is a misunderstanding, no doubt caused by Kortlandt's
>excessively brief formulation. As I understand things, what he
>assumes happened is the following:
>
>In the verbal system, Hirt's law gave rise to a series of verbs with
>an acute stem in which a mobile present tense combined with an (a)-
>stressed l-participle. (This is, I think, unproblematic.)

Yes.

>Then Winter's law caused the stem of a number of verbs that until now
>had had a short stem vowel to become acute. (As far as I can see this
>is unproblematic too, at least until such moment as one starts to
>specify exactly what version of Winter's law one adheres to and
>whatever it is one means when using the word "acute", but I don't
>think either point is relevant here.)

Yes.

>Since in the new acute verbs Hirt's law had not taken place, Winter's
>law gave rise to a series of verbs with an acute stem in which a
>mobile present tense combined with an end-stressed mobile l-
>participle.

End-stressed, not mobile?

>Put differently: after Winter's law had operated, some verbs with an
>acute stem and a mobile present tense had a stem-stressed l-
>participle whereas in others the l-participle was end-stressed. The
>analogy proposed by Kortlandt consists in the assumption that the
>latter type was analogically eliminated in favour of the former type.

I think I've understood everything fine up to here. I just
prefer Dybo's solution: when, after Dybo's law, the present
tense paradigms of bosti and other non-acute barytone verbs
merged with nesti and friends and became mobile, the
corresponding l-participles also merged, with nesló
analogical after regular bodló, etc.

>As usual in Kortlandt it is a perfectly banal analogy.
>I can't follow the idea that if such an analogy took place in the
>l-participle the same must necssarily have happened to derivations
>in -dló etc. and I suspecet it is due to some misunderstanding.

I merely assumed that the analogy after Hirt's law that
Kortlandt proposes for éla was also meant to apply to some
other similar cases, perhaps infinitives such as pre''Nsti,
stri''c^i, pa''sti (pad-). Apparently not.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...