Re: [tied] that horse ... ( it was Re: Albanian valle ...)

From: alex
Message: 35135
Date: 2004-11-17

Piotr Gasiorowski wrote:
> On 04-11-17 12:21, Abdullah Konushevci wrote:
>
>> Konushevci: First of all, I can't understand in other way this
>> killing silence of other members, especially of very good Greek
>> scholars, than as some kind of soft protest against boring posts on
>> known issues.
>
> Yoy are right, Abdullah. It fully qualifies as flogging a dead horse.
>
> Piotr



In fact one just establish phonetically equivalencies with the hope, these
equivalencies are so strong that they cannot be denied by anyone since they
should represent facts. So, apparently for an initial "o", regardless
from/in which language, Albanian has here an "vV-". Thus, this "vV-a-"
correspond with an initial "o" or maybe even an "u" in other languages.. Of
course there are other equivalencies where Alb. has an initial "vV-" there
where in other languages is too an initial "vV-" but this is what one wishes
to find it out. Establishing the relationship between these words, one tries
to find out the timeline when some phonetical changes have been made. Thus,
I wonder which is the dead horse here since for me -so far I understood the
expression- a dead horse is an old idea which cannot be proven by facts. In
this case we are talking about the facts, not some dead horses. Does one
need some examples? I suppose, there is no need, so I won't annoy the people
with them. It is more practical to speculate on dead languages with unknown
meanings just after phonetic appearance of the word as to speculate on
living languages with known meanings & the phonetic aspect of the word. In
fact, we know it: if there is matter of taste, then there is no room for any
discussion:-))


Alex