Re: [tied] som?

From: Bromios King
Message: 33608
Date: 2004-07-24

Perhaps you are right, Sir.
 
Perhaps our people were so excessively polite that the demonstrative was really the indefinite, "one".
 
Regards,
John
 
 
tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

I know of course that the demonstrative *so was an uninflected
particle. Because if it weren't, then back in the good old days
where PIE didn't have so many cases, it would have had an accusative
*som.

Hm!

I wonder if it's outside the limits of the possible that PIE
*som "the same" has changed its semantics from "that one" (acc.), eg
as a consequence of its use in reflexive statements?

Then, poor *so, after having had its accusative hijacked for other
purposes would have had no other option but to enter in a suppletive
paradigm with *to-


('som' (*sm.- ?) is used as a relative pronoun, esp in the acc., in
Danish)

Torsten
 




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