Re: IE lexical accent

> I am also at a loss to explain the lack of accentual movement in

the

> strong forms of the perfect: why do the endings *-H2e, *-tH2e, *-e

not

> cause the accent to move? The vowels of these endings act as if

they just

> are not there. Are they old separate words, or are they secondary

vowel

> insertions before a lost consonant, or are they old consonants

themselves?

> I find this part of the grammar completely intransparent. For the

same

> reason it would also be wrong to use this point against the theory

or even

> to use this enigmatic point as the point of departure for the

formulation

> of the rules at work.
>

Alscher (I've mentioned his name to you once)

http://members.pgv.at/homer/INDOEURO/afroasia.htm

thinks the IE perfect suffixes are identical to the Semitic
preterite prefixes, in whatever way that has come about.

Torsten