'Can' as Past Tense (was: Bader's article on *-os(y)o)

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, enlil@... wrote:

> Jens:
> > So you ascribe the vocalism of the hi-conjugation to the lexical
> > vocalism of the specific roots concerned? Could you explain and
> > justify that? Is it credible that roots with a specific vocalism
> > formed their finite forms with *inflections* of their own?
>
> The *o-grade is not an inflection in all cases. That would be like
> saying that because we have English "sing" and inflected "sang",
> we must think of "can" as the past tense. Why are YOU assuming such
> a funny thing?

Because it works? In Germanic morphology, "can" is a present-
preterite, i.e. a past tense form with present meaning. The Old
English inflection is:

Singular Plural

1. can(n) cunnon
2. canst cunnon
3. can(n) cunnon

Richard.