[tied] Re: Unreality...

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "P&G" <petegray@...> wrote:

> I understand that forms with metrical -ic- instead of -jic- do not

occur

> until the time of Ovid. Which makes the expected -jic- forms the

older (as

> they must be from their formation). Do you have earlier

examples? Even

> Virgil and Horace (only slightly before Ovid) seem consistent in

using

> metrical -jic-. Eg Aeneid 9:553 begins inicit - which must have a

heavy

> first syllable.

No, I don't know a first thing about it. I find the account in
Ernout-Meillet s.v. iacio completely confusing. The information you
give is certainly part of the picture, and it goes to show that we
here have a case of phonemic opposition between /i/ and /j/. I'm not
gonna question that.

Jens