Re: [tied] Re: Bader's article on *-os(y)o

From: Jens Elmegaard Rasmussen
Message: 32947
Date: 2004-05-26

On Tue, 25 May 2004 enlil@... wrote:

> Jens:
> > Why would anybody say "he (as) one thing", "she (as) one thing"
> Nevermind, I stick by my new analysis with /de:mum/. There is no
> **-em and I'm shocked that you would reconstruct something so inane.

So we are to rally around the wisdom of deriving idem from id + de:mum,
right? Did the first part of that contain the /d/ that was exclusively
word-final, and if so, in what position?