From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 32793
Date: 2004-05-19
>--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, enlil@... wrote:No, it looks like what the author says it is: pretonic
>
>> [Jens:]
>> > I find it hard to regard word-final voicing a preferred solution,
>> > but who am I to tell?
>> [Glen:]
>> Alright, so I do an internet search on this apparent restriction
>> and yes I guess linguists do find final voicing rare... but not
>> non-existent (and one might wonder whether the assertion is only
>> substantiated by 'lack of evidence', by dismissing the potential
>> data from languages which _do_ have it, like Lezghian).
>>
>> This article is very significant for this debate on IE:
>>
>> http://home.uchicago.edu/~aclyu/papers/Language80.pdf
>
>I have seen it now, and indeed it looks like a case of voicing
>induced on final consonants by a following word boundary.