Re: [tied] Re: Bader's article on *-os(y)o

elmeras2000 wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, enlil@... wrote:
>
>> Jens "idem" example is bogus because it is a post-IE compound
>> of /id/ and /-dem/.
>
> It should perhaps not be dismissed that lightly. After all there is
> complete congruity between Sanskrit idám and Latin idem of the nom.-
> acc. neuter. That may well count for something. On the other hand:
> Sure, the languages are different on most other points, so why base
> a theory of relatedness on cases where they agree if that may be
> accidental?
>
> Jens

hmmm.. what would say to you a word which sounds "aidoma" and means
"idem", "same as", "in the same way"?
the stress is on "í" and it appears the word is a compositum of an
proclitic "a" + idom(a)


Alex