Re: [tied] Bader's article on *-os(y)o

From: elmeras2000
Message: 32643
Date: 2004-05-16

--- In, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...> wrote:
> >, and *-en-i of r/nt-stems, both with distinctly word-final
treatment of the part
> >preceding the *-i.
> The treatment in the r/n-stems is distinctly non-word-final:
> otherwise we would have had *-er-i.

I can't repeat everything I know in every sentence. The r/nt-stems
have the same *-en and *-en-i with the same form regardless
of the presence or absence of the *-i. My theory about it is that it
is juncture-final and that there used to be an enclitic marking the
locative case. It takes a following enclitic to explain the funny
accentuation on the last slot of the stem regardless of the lexical
accent. The enclitic must have been lost; perhaps it consisted of a
short vowel which was always pre-accented.

> >We never find an alternation before this *-i.
> >This compromises the necessary stage with *-o-z : *-e-s-i and *-o-
> >d : *-e-t-i.
> For what it's worth, the ablative sg. does not seem to
> support Ausgleich. The non-Anatolian form is perhaps *-od
> rather than *-ot. But Hittite -az can only come from *-ot-i
> (*-od-i would have given *-as).

Well, I frankly don't think that is worth much, and I do not
understand what it is supposed to show us here.