Re: [tied] Santiago and James

>However, I still have further questions (three actually). Some other
>sources say that IAKWB[U]S is the Greek form of the earliest "James".
>But Jesus also has a supposed near ancestor through Joseph named
>Jacob, but did not experienced the change name. My first (further)
>question is why?

Jesu's "brother" is called Iacobus, which appears in English versions as
James.

>Second, Is it possible that maybe we have forms near James in Hebrew
>or Aramaic that maybe inspiration for James or of Jacobus>Jacomus?

I doubt it.

>Third, in the Jacobus>Jacomus, (from an early to a later Latin), what
>is the trigger for this? Is there a 'usual' -b- to -m- in the history of

Latin?

This is not Latin, but Greek. Intervocalic -b- became a fricative in
Greek. When it was felt necessary to reinforce the /b/ sound, the nasal was
inserted beforehand. This is exactly what you see in modern Greek (e.g. to
mbar = the "the bar"). That may be the source of the -m-.

If the change -b- to -mb- occurs within French (which is what I was taught
years ago) then it is indeed odd. Anyone know any other examples?

Peter