> True in principle, but I don't think it applies here. If the lastwould
> half of *saDula is the "tool" suffix PIE *-tlo, the first half
> be *sed- and not any other ablaut form, judging from theother "seat"
> words, and /e/ > /a/ is characteristic of the II languages. ThatSarmatian
> together with the general assumption that the saddle is a
> invention makes the idea that *saDula is a loanword from an IIThe sources that I have consulted says that English saddle (OE setl,
> language at least plausible.