Re: [tied] Re: IE subjunctive

On Sat, 06 Mar 2004 20:10:29 -0800 (PST),
enlil@... wrote:

>Jens:
>> That is not so. The negative form of the present indicative is
>> simply the present indicative (with a negative particle) which ends
>> in *-ti in the 3sg.
>
>Excuse? I can see why everyone, including me, is so confused
>half the time, when one camp says one thing and another camp
>comes along and says another:
>
> http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indicative_mood
> "In some non-Indo-European languages, the negative mood
> counts as a separate mood."

Note: some *non*-Indo-European languages.

>A negative statement can be seen to be a hypothetical
>statement, and therefore outside the indicative mood. Since
>some IE languages do indeed seperate negative statements from
>the indicative,

Which ones?

The only IE languages I can think of that distinguish
between affirmative and negative (not in mood but in case
and aspect) are the Slavic languages. For instance, in
Polish:

mam czas "I have time" (czas = Acc.)
nie mam czasu "I have no time" (czasu = Gen.)

zrób to! "do that!" (perfective)
nie rób to! "don't do that" (imperfective).

There's also the English use of the auxiliary "do" in (inter
alia) negative sentences, and no doubt some other
peculiarities in other IE languages, but nothing that can be
traced back to PIE.

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...