> > (b) The main argument for the existence of plain velars in PIE isseveral
> > correspondence:
> > Centum /k/ ~ Satem /k/
> > It has nothing to do with the vowel that follows.
> That argument on its own, of course, relies on Satem *not* being a
> tight-knit group. If it were, one could suspect dialect admixture,
> as in the case of British s- ~ st- > Welsh h- ~ s-, but with
> words showing s- > s-, such as _saith_ 'seven'."Satem not being a tight-knit group", it seems to me, is equivalent